Q-1 If the day after tomorrow is Friday , what day will the third day after tomorrow be
(a) Saturday
(b) Monday
(c) Sunday
(d) Friday
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Reasoning Quiz
Reasoning Quiz For SBI PO Prelims
Directions (Q. 1-5): In these questions, a relationship between different elements is shown in the
statement(s). The statement(s) is/are followed by two conclusions. Give answer
1) if only conclusion I is true.
2) if only conclusion II is true.
3) if either conclusion I or II is true.
4) if neither conclusion I nor II is true.
5) if both conclusions I and II are true.
1. Statements: K < N = O, P > W < K
Conclusions: I. P > N
II. O > W
2. Statements: C = P, G < C, N > G
Conclusions: I. N > C
II. P = N
3. Statements: I > N >= T, E < R = T
Conclusions: I. I > R
II. E <= N
4. Statement: V < Q = A > W = Z > P
Conclusions: I. Q >= Z
II. V < P
5. Statement: Z >= X < Y > M > N
Conclusions: I. N < Y
II. Z >= M
Directions (Q. 5-10): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
J, H, N, P and F are five scientists involved in an international research project and hold a meeting in New York. There are certain limitations on their language skills. Scientists J knows only Italian and European. H is good at Italian and English. N likes to speak English and European languages. P knows Chinese and Italian. F likes to speak the three languages other than Italian.
6. Who among the following cannot converse without an interpreter?
1) J, H
2) N, P
3) F, N
4) P, F
5) None of these
7. Which of the following languages was used the least in the meeting?
1) Chinese
2) Italian
3) English
4) European
5) Can’t be determined
8. Besides F, who among the following can converse with P without an interpreter?
1) Only H and N
2) Only N
3) Only J and H
4) Only H
5) None of these
9. Who among the following speak Italian?
1) J, F, N
2) H, N, F
3) J, P, F
4) P, H, J
5) None of these
10. How many scientists know Chinese?
1) Two
2) Three
3) Four
4) Can’t be determined
5) None of these
Answer:-
1. (2); Given statements: K < N = O ... (i)
P > W < K ... (ii)
Combining these statements, we get
Again, W < O or O > W is true. Hence, conclusion II is true.
2. (4); Given statements: C = P ... (i)
G < C ... (ii)
N > G ... (iii)
Combining these statements, we have
Hence, neither conclusion I nor II is true.
3. (1); Given statements: I > N >= T ... (i)
E < R = T ... (ii)
Combining these statements, we have
Again, E < N. Thus, (E <= N) is not true. Hence, conclusion II is not true.
4. (4); Given statements:
Again, Q > Z is true. Hence, conclusion I (Q >= Z) is not true.
5. (1); Given statement:
(Z >= M) is not true. Hence conclusion II is not true.
But Y > N or N < Y is true. Hence, conclusion I is true.
Given Statement:-
7. (1)
8. (3)
9. (4)
10. (1)
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Prelims,
Reasoning Quiz
Reasoning Quiz For SBI PO Prelims Exam 2015
Directions (Q. 1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre, but not necessarily in the same order. There are two female members in the group. C sits third to the left of A and second to the right of E, who is not a male member. B is second to the right of C. D is second to the right of G, who is second to the right of A. There are three members between two female embers. F is not on the immediate right of C.
1. Who among the following sits on the immediate right of C?
1) G
2) H
3) B
4) D
5) None of these
2. Which of the following pairs are immediate neighbours of H?
1) C, B
2) E, C
3) A, G
4) F, B
5) None of these
3. Which of the following pairs represents female members?
1) A, E
2) D, B
3) F, C
4) B, E
5) None of these
4. Who among the following is sitting opposite A?
1) C
2) E
3) D
4) F
5) None of these
5. Who among the following is third to the right of B?
1) D
2) E
3) G
4) F
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 6-10): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
A % D F K E 8 J Q 1 ✡ V T U 2 $ W # 6 B G @ I L 7 3 H
6. If all the symbols are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be eleventh from the right end?
1) W
2) 2
3) U
4) T
5) None of these
7. How many such letters are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a number?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) None of these
8. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and followed by a vowel?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) None of these
9. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is not immediately preceded by a symbol but followed by a vowel?
1) One
2) Two
3) Three
4) Four
5) None of these
10. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a number?
1) One
2) Two
3) Three
4) Four
5) None of these
Answer:-
6. (3); New arrangement: A D F K E 8 J Q 1 V T U 2 W 6 B G I L 7 3 H.
Hence, eleventh from right end is U.
7. (5); E8, Q1, U2, L7. Hence there are four such letters.
8. (2); G @ I
9. (2); FKE, VTU
10. (5)
Answer:-
| Q. 1 (2) | Q. 2 (1) | Q. 3 (4) | Q. 4 (3) | Q. 5 (3) |
6. (3); New arrangement: A D F K E 8 J Q 1 V T U 2 W 6 B G I L 7 3 H.
Hence, eleventh from right end is U.
7. (5); E8, Q1, U2, L7. Hence there are four such letters.
8. (2); G @ I
9. (2); FKE, VTU
10. (5)
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Daily Reasoning Quiz,
Reasoning Quiz
Reasoning Quiz - SBI Prelims
1. In a certain code language MAINE is written as GPHCO. How is GRANT written in that code language?
1) VPZSH
2) VPZTI
3) VPBTI
4) PVZTI
5) None of these
2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word APPROPRIATE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
1) One
2) Two
3) Three
4) Four
5) More than four
3. How many meaningful English words can be formed using the first, third, seventh and eighth letter of the meaningless word LAMBASTE, using each letter only once in each word?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) None of these
4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1) 89
2) 69
3) 79
4) 49
5) 59
5. If the letters of the word "INCREMENT" are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) None of these
6. In a column of twenty two students, Q is fourth after P from the front and P is 18th from the back. What is the position of Q from the front?
1) Eighth
2) Tenth
3) Ninth
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 7-11): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
4 9 4 9 2 3 2 1 5 7 9 3 5 8 5 2 5 6 1 8 5 9 7 2 6 2 4 2 5 8 3 1 6 2 4
7. Which of the following is seventh to the left of the twenty second digit from the left end of the above arrangement?
1) 9
2) 1
3) 6
4) 5
5) None of these
8. How many such 2’s are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a perfect square?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) None of these
9. If all the odd digits are deleted from the above arrangement, which of the following will be tenth from the left end of the arrangement?
1) 6
2) 2
3) 4
4) 8
5) None of these
10. How many such 5’s are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and followed by an even number?
1) None
2) Three
3) One
4) Two
5) None of these
Answer:-
1. (2);
2. (5);
3. (2); First letter --> L
Third letter --> M
Seventh letter --> T
Eighth letter -> E
The meaningful English word is MELT.
4. (4); Only 49 is a perfect square.
5. (2);
6. (3); P is 18th from the back.
The position of Q from the back is 18 – 4 = 14th
Hence, the position of Q from the front is (22 – 14 + 1 =) 9th
7. (4); 7th to the left of the 22nd digit from the left is (22 – 7 =) 15th from the left end, ie 5.
8. (3); 9 2, 4 2
9. (1); The new series is 4 4 2 2 8 2 6 8 2 6 2 4 2 8 6 2 4. So, the tenth digit from the left end is 6.
10. (3); 3 5 8
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Reasoning Quiz Set 1
Labels:
Prelims,
Reasoning Quiz
Reasoning Quiz For Exam 2015
Dear Readers,
We are providing you this Quiz which will help you for your Upcoming Examinations .It will be useful for IBPS PO, SBI PO, SBI SO, Insurance and other exams.
1. If T > K and L <= D are definitely true, what will come in place of blank spaces in the given expression?
R = K _E <= L _ T_G <= D
1) <, =, <=
2) >, =, <=
3) >=, =, <=
4) >=, =, <=
5) None of these
2. Which of the following expressions will be true if the expression S <=E >= N >= T > H is definitely true?
1) S > H
2) N =< E
3) T > E
4) H < N
5) S > N
3. Which of the following symbols should replace the question mark (?) in the given expression to make the expression R <= E true and U > R false?
O < I > N < R __ U __ E
1) <, =
2) <=, =
3) >, =
4) =, >
5) None of these
Direction (Q. 4-6): Read the given information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Independence Day is considered as a day of rejoicing. Thousands of heroes of independence struggle made the supreme sacrifice of their lives so that we can enjoy freedom. But see how we have misused the hard-won freedom over the last 67 years – exactly in the same way the racist representatives of the British, Winston Churchill, predicted before India wrested independence from the British. Independence Day and Republic Day do not kindle patriotic fervour in a large section of our society any longer. They have only been non-working days where people sit back at home and enjoy with their families. They produce only total revulsion for our corrupt political class, selfserving
bureaucracy, greedy business empires and the completely undisciplined people. The gullible people of the country have been taken for a ride by the promises made by their leaders all these years while they have been bleeding the nation white in scam after scam. To millions of patriotic Indians Independence day will remain a sad day until all these parasites are totally annihilated.
4. Which of the following assumptions is implicit in the above passage?
1) People of India lack in nationalism.
2) Increasing corruption in India has ended the patriotic feelings among the Indians.
3) Bureaucracy is the hurdle in national integrity.
4) The freedom movement of India was not public; it was confined to only a few individuals.
5) None of these
5. Which of the following will be the effect of lack of patriotism in India?
I. Communal harmony will be disturbed in the country.
II. Caste system will be promoted.
III. Terrorism activities will increase in the country.
IV. The economy of the country will be affected
1) Only I
2) Only I and II
3) Only III
4) Only III and IV
5) Only I, II and IV
6. Which of the following statements are in line with the above passage?
1) The independence of India was very hard-earned.
2) People of India are not respecting the hard-earned freedom of India.
3) Increasing corruption in India is creating anger among the people.
4) Independence day is just like a public holiday where people sit at home and enjoy.
5) All of these
Direction (Q. 7-8): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Problems of illetracy, malnutrition, anaemia, vitamin and iodine deficiency, and school dropouts are very common among children in India. In 2001 the Supreme Court of India ruled that state governments must provide MidDay-Meal (MDM) to children of government-assisted primary schools. The 2007-08 Budget of the Central Government allocated about `73 billion for the MDM
scheme. Therefore, it becomes imperative that a comprehensive evaluation of the programme be undertaken to judge its efficiency. Increasing corruption and lack of proper management has made the Mid-Day-Meal just the promise written in the election mainfestoes of political parties. The recent incident of the programme in Bihar has made the condition worse. It has been more than five years
since the MDM scheme was launched but the condition has not yet changed and the problems remain the same.
7. Which of the following is the main reason behind the failure of the Mid-day-meal scheme?
1) Very small quantity of food is provided, which is not able to fulfil the deficiency.
2) Increasing corruption, due to which good quality of food is not provided to the children.
3) Mid-day meal provides the food but proper nutritious food is not being given to the children.
4) Increasing health problem due to mid-day meal
5) All of these
8. What course of action should the government take to fulfil the deficiency and make the mid-day meal a successful programme?
I. The government should take steps to provide at least specific calories and proteins to the children.
II. Inspection of food should be done before providing it to children.
III. Strict action should be taken in case of violation.
IV. The government should work upon to provide more delicious food to the children.
1) Only I
2) Only II and IV
3) Only I, II and III
4) Only II and III
5) Only III
9. Which of the following assumptions is/are implicit in the above passage?
I. Mid-day meal nowadays has become the weapon of political parties before the elections.
II. Mid-day meal should be given to private organisations by the government.
III. Continuous audits should be done in order to check the effectiveness of the programme.
IV. The programme of Mid-Day Meal should be stopped by the government.
1) Only I
2) Only I and II
3) Only I and III
4) Only I, II and III
5) All of these
10. The city-based English medium schools, which always look for excuses to deny admission to poor candidates, have now started turning down poor parents, appeal citing the government’s indifferences towards below poverty line (BPL) students. The schools say the government is reluctant to provide financial aid to the institutions for the admission of poor students.
Which of the following assumptions is/are implicit in the above passage?
1) The English medium schools do not want the poor children to study in these schools.
2) The schools think that the poor students are going to create unhealthy atmosphere in the schools.
3) The government is not providing financial aid to the institutions to support poor children.
4) The schools want children of only super rich parents.
5) All of these
Answer:-
1. (1);
Option 1) R = K < E <= L = T <= G <= D
This leads us to K < T or T > K is true and L <= D is true. Hence option 1) follows.
2. (2);Given expression, S <= E >= N <= T > H.
Thus, we can’t compare S and either H or N. Hence, 1 and 5 do not follow. Similarly, T
and E can’t be compared. Hence, 3 does not follow.
Again, H and N can’t be compared. So 4 does not follow. But E >= N or N <= E follows.
Hence 2) follows.
3. (2);
Given expression: O < I > N < R ? U Check option one by one
Option (2) O < I > N < R <= U = E Clearly R <= E is true and U > R is false. Hence, follows.
4. (2); Independence Day and Republic Day only produce total revulsion for our corrupt
political class and self serving bureaucracy.
5. (4); Lack of patriotism will promote the terrorist activities in the country as the
defence forces will not be vigilant. This in turn will affect the economy of the country.
6. (5)
7. (2); The passage gives only two reasons: (i) increasing corruption and (ii) lack of
proper management.
8. (3); Specific calories and proteins should be given to the children which will help in
fighting malnutrition. Inspection of food will reduce the risk of medical problems after
eating the contaminated food and the persons who are responsible for the violation should
be dealt strictly. This will create fear among those who are putting the lives of the children
in danger.
9. (3); Assumption I is implicit in the reference to “election manifestoes of
political parties.” III is implicit in the “imperative” that “a comprehensive
evaluation of the programme be undertaken”.
10. (1); Assumption I is implicit; that is why these schools “always look for excuses to
deny admission to poor candidates.” Beware of assumption III! It is a restatement.
Answer:-
1. (1);
Option 1) R = K < E <= L = T <= G <= D
This leads us to K < T or T > K is true and L <= D is true. Hence option 1) follows.
2. (2);Given expression, S <= E >= N <= T > H.
Thus, we can’t compare S and either H or N. Hence, 1 and 5 do not follow. Similarly, T
and E can’t be compared. Hence, 3 does not follow.
Again, H and N can’t be compared. So 4 does not follow. But E >= N or N <= E follows.
Hence 2) follows.
3. (2);
Given expression: O < I > N < R ? U Check option one by one
Option (2) O < I > N < R <= U = E Clearly R <= E is true and U > R is false. Hence, follows.
4. (2); Independence Day and Republic Day only produce total revulsion for our corrupt
political class and self serving bureaucracy.
5. (4); Lack of patriotism will promote the terrorist activities in the country as the
defence forces will not be vigilant. This in turn will affect the economy of the country.
6. (5)
7. (2); The passage gives only two reasons: (i) increasing corruption and (ii) lack of
proper management.
8. (3); Specific calories and proteins should be given to the children which will help in
fighting malnutrition. Inspection of food will reduce the risk of medical problems after
eating the contaminated food and the persons who are responsible for the violation should
be dealt strictly. This will create fear among those who are putting the lives of the children
in danger.
9. (3); Assumption I is implicit in the reference to “election manifestoes of
political parties.” III is implicit in the “imperative” that “a comprehensive
evaluation of the programme be undertaken”.
10. (1); Assumption I is implicit; that is why these schools “always look for excuses to
deny admission to poor candidates.” Beware of assumption III! It is a restatement.
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Reasoning Quiz
Reasoning Quiz For SBI PO Mains 2015
Direction (Q. 1-5): Study the given information and answer the following questions:
When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of an input and rearrangement:
Input : 45 navel change 33 48 down town frown 62 88 98 gesture orange 21
Step I: 45 navel change 33 48 down frown 62 88 98 gesture orange town 21
Step II: 45 navel change 48 down frown 62 88 98 gesture town 21 orange 33
Step III: change 48 down frown 62 88 98 gesture town 21 orange 33 navel 45
Step IV: change down frown 62 88 98 town 21 orange 33 navel 45 gesture 48
Step V: change down 88 98 town 21 orange 33 navel 45 gesture 48 frown 62
Step VI: change 98 town 21 orange 33 navel 45 gesture 48 frown 62 down 88
Step VII: town 21 orange 33 navel 45 gesture 48 frown 62 down 88 change 98
Step VII is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is obtained. As per the rules followed in the given steps, find out the appropriate steps for the given input.
Input: 35 quant hear cute 50 65 98 silent giant 71 82 19 oliver melody
1. How many steps will be required to complete the given input ?
1) Five
2) Six
3) Seven
4) Eight
5) None of these
2. Which of the following is the fourth element from the left end of Step VI?
1) cute
2) melody
3) 71
4) oliver
5) None of these
3. What is the position of ‘melody’ from the left end in the final step?
1) Sixth
2) Seventh
3) Eighth
4) Fifth
5) Ninth
4. Which element is fourth to the right of ‘giant’ in Step V?
1) cute
2) 19
3) quant
4) 98
5) 35
5. Which of the following is Step III of the given input?
1) quant 82 hear 50 giant 35 cute 19 65 98 silent 71 oliver melody
2) hear cute 65 98 giant 71 82 melody silent 19 quant 35 oliver 50
3) hear cute 98 giant 71 82 silent 19 quant 35 oliver 50 melody 65
4) hear cute 98 65 giant 71 82 melody silent 19 quant 35 oliver 50
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 6-10): Each of the question below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Read both the statements and give answer
1) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4) If the data in statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
6. How is Sunita related to Kaushal?
I. Purvi is a daughter of Kaushal. Geet, Sunita’s sister, has a son Rishab and a daughter Lavi.
II. Maya is maternal aunt of Lavi and mother of Piyush Rishabh is cousin of Piyush. Piyush is brother of Purvi.
7. A salesman sold six magazines A, B, C, D, E and F during a period from Monday to Saturday, one on each day. How many magazines were sold after magazine D?
I. Magazi ne C was sold at least before three magazines. Magazine F was sold on Tuesday.
Magazine D was sold immediately after C.
II. Both Magazine B and E were sold at least before one magazine. At least four magazines were sold after Magazine E.
8. Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are seated around a circular table facing towards the centre. Who is sitting on the immediate right of E?
I. C and E are not adjacent to each other. There are three persons between B and H.
II. A is adjacent to F. F is on the left of C.
9. Five books of subject Hindi, English, Marathi, Punjabi and Bengali are arranged from right to left. Which book is placed at third from the left?
I. Marathi is placed second to the left of Hindi. English is on the immediate left of Marathi. There are only two books between Marathi and Bengali.
II. Punjabi is exactly in the middle of Hindi and Marathi. Both the Hindi and Marathi books are not at the extreme ends of the rack.
10. What is the code of ‘sky’ in a code language?
I. In the code language, ‘hu ta ki nu’ means ‘kites fly in sky’, and ‘ta ki ru’ means ‘birds in sky’.
II. In the code language, ‘nu pa le’ means ‘kites needs thread’ and ‘nu ki cu da’ means ‘kites available in colours’.
(1-5):
Words are arranged in reverse alphabetical order and the numbers are arranged in
ascending order. One word and one number is arranged in each step. The arrangement is
done from right to left.
Input: 35 quant hear cute 50 65 98 silent giant 71 82 19 oliver melody
Step I. 35 quant hear cute 50 65 98 giant 71 82 oliver melody silent 19
Step II. hear cute 50 65 98 giant 71 82 oliver melody silent 19 quant 35
Step III. hear cute 65 98 giant 71 82 melody silent 19 quant 35 oliver 50
Step IV. hear cute 98 giant 71 82 silent 19 quant 35 oliver 50 melody 65
Step V. cute 98 giant 82 silent 19 quant 35 oliver 50 melody 65 hear 71
Step VI. cute 98 silent 19 quant 35 oliver 50 melody 65 hear 71 giant 82
Step VII. silent 19 quant 35 oliver 50 melody 65 hear 71 giant 82 cute 98
(1-5):
Words are arranged in reverse alphabetical order and the numbers are arranged in
ascending order. One word and one number is arranged in each step. The arrangement is
done from right to left.
Input: 35 quant hear cute 50 65 98 silent giant 71 82 19 oliver melody
Step I. 35 quant hear cute 50 65 98 giant 71 82 oliver melody silent 19
Step II. hear cute 50 65 98 giant 71 82 oliver melody silent 19 quant 35
Step III. hear cute 65 98 giant 71 82 melody silent 19 quant 35 oliver 50
Step IV. hear cute 98 giant 71 82 silent 19 quant 35 oliver 50 melody 65
Step V. cute 98 giant 82 silent 19 quant 35 oliver 50 melody 65 hear 71
Step VI. cute 98 silent 19 quant 35 oliver 50 melody 65 hear 71 giant 82
Step VII. silent 19 quant 35 oliver 50 melody 65 hear 71 giant 82 cute 98
| Q. 1 (3) | Q. 2 (5) | Q. 3 (2) | Q. 4 (3) | Q. 5 (2) |
6. (5); 
Clearly, Sunita is sister-in-law of Kaushal. Both I and II are required to answer.
7. (1); From I. Since Magazine C was sold at least before three magazines, it was sold
on Mon, Tue or Wed. But F was sold on Tue. So C was sold on Mon or Wed. Again, it can’t
be Mon because then D would be sold on Tue. Hence, C was sold on Wed and D on Thu. Thus, two magazines were sold after D.
From II. At least four magazine were sold after E. So, E was sold on Mon or Tue. Hence, II is not sufficient.
8. (4);
C and E are not adjacent to each other.
F is on the left of C.
A is adjacent to F.
and other possibilities.
Both I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
9. (3); 
Clearly ‘Punjabi’ book is placed at third. I alone is sufficient.
Clearly, ‘Punjabi’ book is placed at third. II alone is sufficient.
10. (5);
From I. hu ta ki nu => kites fly in sky ... (i)
ta ki ru => birds in sky ... (ii)
in sky => ki/ta
Hence, I is not sufficient to answer
From II. nu pa le => kites needs thread ... (iii)
nu ki cu da => kites available in colours ... (iv)
From I and II,
using equation (iv), (i) and (ii) sky => ta
Both I and II together are sufficient to answer the question.
Reasoning Quiz For SBI Preliminary Exam 2015
Directions (Q. 1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
L, M, P, J, K and H are six family members. L and M are a married couple. K is sister of J. M is daughter-in-law of H, who is grandmother of K’s brother. J is the only son of P, who is brother of L.
1. How many female members are there in the family?
1) Two
2) Three
3) Four
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
2. How is P related to K?
1) Mother
2) Brother
3) Sister
4) Father
5) None of these
3. How is H related to J?
1) Grandmother
2) Grandfather
3) Father
4) Mother
5) Can’t be determined
4. What is the relation between K and M?
1) M is mother of K
2) K is nephew of M
3) M is sister of K
4) K is niece of M
5) Can’t be determined
5. Which of the following statements is true?
1) P is daughter of H
2) K is daughter of M
3) M is aunt of J
4) K is grandson of H
5) All are true
6. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ENGLISH each of which has as many letters between then in the word as in the English alphabet?
1) One
2) Two
3) Three
4) Four
5) None of these
7. What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following series?
ACB, DFE, GIH, ?
1) KLJ
2) KNO
3) JLK
4) NOM
5) None of these
8. In a certain code language NOVICE is written as 3#1%6@ and ADVICE is written as 2`1%6@. How is NOIDA written that code language?
1) 3#%`2
2) 3#`%2
3) 3#2%`
4) 3#%2`
5) None of these
9. What should come next in the following number sequence?
1 2 1 1 2 2 3 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 4 5 1 1 2 2 3
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
5) None of these
10. Neelam and her brother Nayan are standing at a point. Nayan starts a morning walk and walks 60m towards west, then he turns to his left and walks 20m. He then turns to his left and walks 50m. Again he turns to his right and walks 5m. Finally he turns to his left and walks 10m. How far and in which direction is he now from his sister?
1) 70m, east
2) 25m, south
3) 25m, north
4) 55m, west
5) None of these
Answer:-
| Q. 1 (2) | Q. 2 (4) | Q. 3 (1) | Q. 4 (4) | Q. 5 (3) |
9. (3); 121/12231/1223341/122334451/ 12233
10. (2);
Distance = 20 + 5 = 25m and he is south of Neelam.
Labels:
Daily Reasoning Quiz,
Reasoning Quiz
